The expected return a risky asset

$($such as a company$)$ should earn is defined as the sum of two parts: $1)$ the risk$-$free

interest rate plus $2)$ the asset$$s $$risk premium$,$ which is proportional to the covariance

between the asset$$s return and wealth. a$)$ In one sentence, explain the intuition for why an asset$$s expected return is

defined as the sum of these two parts $($risk free interest rate $+$ risk premium

determined by an asset$$s contribution to an investor$$s risk$).$ b$)$ If a company$$s value is determined by the discounted value of its future

cashflows at a discount rate appropriate to the company$$s risk: i$)$ Why would company values go down when the risk$-$free interest rate

goes up$?($top reason$)$ ii$)$ Why might the value of companies that are growing rapidly go down

proportionally more? $($top reason$)$