Question: The linearization of the function f(x) = sing at a = 0 is L(x) = r, giving a linear approximation of sing ~ r at

The linearization of the function f(x) = sing at a = 0 is L(x) = r, giving a linear approximation of sing ~ r at a = 0. Consider the approximation: sin Is this an appropriate use of a linear approximation? Explain why or why not? Use the notion of linear approximations learned in section 3.10 to help support your

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