Question: This is asking to show that if there is a b-ary code that is PF, and K=1 for an alphabet the size of m, then

This is asking to show that if there is a b-ary code that is PF, and K=1 for an alphabet the size of m, then b-1 must divide m-1.
Let us say that a code is complete if it is PF and K = 1. Show that if there is a complete b-ary code for an alphabet of size m, then b-1 must divide m 1. Let us say that a code is complete if it is PF and K = 1. Show that if there is a complete b-ary code for an alphabet of size m, then b-1 must divide m 1
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