Training and Development (H1504) Test 1 Practice Question Practice Questions 1 -50, if you practice more, I will send you answers for all questions practiced Students are presented with a set of 75 questions selected at random from the following bank of 140 questions 1. Which of the following is evidence supporting the assertion that companies are investing in more training? (select all that apply) a. Higher net sales per employee b. Higher gross profits per employee c. Higher ratios of market to book value 2. In an open system model, which of the following statements is NOT true? a. Open systems have a dynamic relationship with their environment. b. Open systems may exist as part of another open system c. The system is open to influences from its environment. d. Outputs never have an influence on future inputs. 3. Viewing training as a subsystem of an organizational system, the inputs into the training subsystem include an organization's (Select all that apply) a. Strategies b. Mission c. Resources d. People 4. In the training model, a triggering event is a. An organizational performance gap. b. A signal that training has been successful. c. A type of behavioral-based evaluation. d. Input into the development phase of training. 5. In the evaluation of training, a determination of whether the trainer actually covered all aspects of the training as designed is called a. Outcome evaluation b. Outcome c. Phase evaluation d. Process evaluation e. Procedural evaluation 6. Which of the following is NOT true of outcome evaluation? a. It uses training objectives as its criteria for success. b. This is all the information you need to improve a training program. c. It is conducted at the end of training 7. All aspects of the training program come together in the a. Design phase b. Implementation phase c. Development phase d. Analysis phase e. Evaluation phase 8. Which of the following statements is true? a. Training has yet to show a positive effect on the bottom line. b. Training managers are alone in realizing that alignment of training with the business strategy is important. c. Worker knowledge provides a competitive advantage. d. Alignment of training with the business strategy is quite simple to do 9. Which of the following career paths best prepares a trainer for a supervisory or coordinator position? a. Several years' experience in a specific function b. Working in a line position c. Rotation through various specialist positions d. None of the other answers 10. Which of these steps is part of the continuous improvement model? a. Gap analysis b. Preaudit c. Process mapping d. Higher productivity 11. The authors' use of attitudes rather than abilities as one of the three types of learning outcomes is based on a. their bias toward attitudes b. the fact that abilities and attitudes are fairly similar c. the fact that abilities are redundant with knowledge and skills d. the fact that abilities are not learned. 12. Learning is defined as a. A temporary change in cognition that results from experience and may influence behavior. b. A relatively permanent change in understanding and thinking that results from experience and directly influences behavior. c. A relatively permanent change in understanding and thinking that models behavior. d. A temporary change in understanding and thinking. e. A relatively permanent change in cognition that results from self-efficacy and indirectly influences behavior. 13. Knowledge is composed of which three interrelated types? a. Declarative, practical, and strategic b. Declarative, practical, and skill c. Compilation, automatic, and strategic d. Declarative, procedural, and strategic 14. A person's store of factual information about a subject matter is a. Procedural knowledge b. Strategic knowledge c. Declarative knowledge d. Practical knowledge 15. When a person is able to perform a skill without thinking about what they are doing, they are at which level of skill acquisition? a. Automaticity b. Automatic c. Compilation d. Responsive 16. The authors use the acronym KSA to refer to what? a. Keep it Simple, and have the right Attitude b. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes c. Knowledge, strategy, and aptitude d. Knowledge skills and abilities 17. Linking competencies to a set of behaviors that allow you to "know it when you see it" is useful for (Select all that apply) a. Hiring b. Training c. Determining rates of pay 18. A broad grouping of knowledge, skills, and attitudes that enable a person to be successful at a number of similar tasks is known as a a. Competency b. Test c. Job analysis d. Strategy e. Skill set 19. According to the text, _____ provides the opportunity for learning and _____ is a result of the learning. a. Education; training b. Development; training c. Training; development d. Education; development 20. _________ is (are) the foundation for competencies. a. Tests b. KSAs c. Strengths d. Motivation e. Skill sets 21. What are the factors that interact to determine performance? a. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes b. Environment, skills, and strategy c. Attitudes, strategy, and motivation d. Motivation, KSAs and environment 22. What are the factors that interact to determine performance? a. Knowledge, skills, and attitudes b. Environment, skills, and strategy c. Attitudes, strategy, and motivation d. Motivation, environment, and skills e. Motivation, KSAs, and environment 23. Classical conditioning a. Is an automatic response requiring no learning b. Was discovered by Skinner c. Is a learned response to a stimulus. d. Once learned cannot be unlearned. 25. Stimulus leads to response which leads to consequence, best illustrates which theory? a. Punishment b. Consequence c. Reinforcement d. Needs 26. Which of these statements is true? a. Maslow is known for his early work on Classical Conditioning b. Alderfer developed a needs theory based on Pavlov's early work c. Existence needs are the highest order needs d. Relatedness reflects people's need to be valued by others. 27. Which of the following statements about learning is true? a. It is not closely tied to memory. b. It is always observable. c. It must be retained to be useful. d. It is always measurable by testing. 28. Understanding needs theory is important in the training process because a. Needs theory can help determine what kind of training design will be more effective. b. Needs theory can provide insight into the attitudes of trainees. c. Needs theory can help identify trainees' self-efficacy. 29. Which of the following is true about studying motivation from a behaviorist approach? a. It is most reflected in how the behaviorist approach describes the brain's function in learning. b. It suggests that learning is not controlled by the environment. c. It suggests that trainers control learning by controlling the stimuli and consequences that the learner experiences. d. Bandura is the best-known contemporary behaviorist. 30. Stimulus leads to response which leads to consequence, best illustrates which theory? a. Punishment b. Consequence c. Reinforcement d. Needs 31. A basic premise in Social Learning Theory is a. A person can only learn by behaving in some way. b. A person can learn merely through observation. c. Events can be learned without being processed. d. Consequences of behavior do not influence learning. 32. Which of the following statements is true regarding punishment? a. It does not usually reduce the future likelihood of a behavior. b. It is a very effective form of motivation. c. It has the same results as negative reinforcement. d. It is an undesirable training tool. e. Randomly administering punishment keeps trainees on their toes. 33. Symbolic coding is a. The second stage of attracting attention. b. Where you rehearse in your mind how to "do it." c. Part of the retention process. d. A design method for assuring learning. 34. Which of the following statements about expectancy theory is true? a. Expectancy 2 is related to self-efficacy. b. Valence is the measure used for expectancy 1. c. Expectancy 1 is 1.0 when related to a decision making (go vs. no go) process. d. The valence of outcomes is the same for everyone. e. Expectancy 1 is directly related to valence of outcomes. 35. Asking trainees to provide examples of how the knowledge being trained relates to what they already know facilitates a. Chaining b. Verbal association learning c. Cognitive organization d. Operant conditioning 36. Which of the following statements best explains the relationship between training and self-efficacy? a. The two concepts are not related. b. Training can act to improve low self-efficacy only when employees have the required KSAs. c. It is useful to assess trainee self-efficacy prior to training only. d. Self-efficacy beliefs are a good predictor of learning in the training environment. 37. Which of the following best describes the Gagn-Briggs' micro theory of instructional design? a. Is useful for understanding learning but not for development of training b. Is a guide for designing training events in each module of the training program. c. Is similar to the ERG theory of motivation. d. Focuses on the content of the training, not the training process. 38. In social learning, theory retention has three phases which are a. Attention, symbolic coding, behavioral reproduction b. Recognize, recall, retain c. Attention, motivation, symbolic coding d. Symbolic coding, cognitive organization, symbolic rehearsal. 39. Resistance to learning occurs when (Select all that apply) a. The trainee is not motivated. b. The trainee does not have the necessary prerequisite KSAs. c. The environment is not conducive to learning. d. There is little or no supervisor support 40. The Gagn-Briggs theory of instructional design a. Has three events: attention, retention, and behavioral reproduction b. Has "gaining attention" as its first event. c. Is only useful for designing effective lectures. 41. Which of the following focuses on an anticipated performance problem in the future? a. The PAQ b. A reactive TNA c. A proactive TNA d. Work sampling 42. A triggering event a. Is a comparison of a reactive and proactive TNA. b. Occurs when actual organizational performance is greater than expected organizational performance. c. Occurs when actual organizational performance is less than expected organizational performance. d. Usually means some employees require training 43. _____ involves looking at all the influences that could affect employee performance in the organization and determining their fit within organizational goals and objectives. a. Performance analysis b. Operational analysis c. Goals analysis d. Organizational analysis e. Personnel analysis 44. A training needs analysis is conducted when a a. Setback event occurs b. Triggering event occurs. c. Decision to provide sexual harassment training is made. d. Deficiency is determined to be a motivational deficiency. 45. When a(n) _____ analysis is conducted for strategic planning, it is a major undertaking. The ___ and relevant strategies that have been identified in the strategic plan are an indication of where the firm wishes to be. a. Organizational; mission b. Operational; organizational c. Performance; person analysis d. Operational; goals 46. Looking at the internal environment of an organization and determining its fit with organizational goals and objectives is associated with which TNA component? a. Operational Analysis b. Performance Discrepancy c. Organizational Analysis d. Person Analysis e. Organizational Laddering 47. The selection process of incumbents in operational analysis should be performed by a. A supervisor b. The manager of the organization c. A head hunter d. A job analyst 48. Organizational analysis should focus on (Select all that apply) a. Mission and capital resources b. Job analysis c. Human resources and organizational environment 49. Which of the following statements regarding job analysis is true? a. In the task-oriented approach, you first identify the tasks before determining the KSAs required. b. KSAs are made up of multiple competencies. c. The worker-oriented approach goes directly to determining the KSAs, then determines the tasks so it is more effective d. The PAQ is more effective than the task-oriented approach e. Competency modeling is a more scientific approach and job analysis is not as relevant anymore 50. When an OPG is identified, a(n) _____________ should be conducted in conjunction with an organizational analysis in order to fully understand the nature of the gap. a. System analysis b. Operational analysis c. Performance evaluation d. Goal analysis