urgent please help

Question 2 2 pts A U.S. firm holds an asset in Great Britain and faces the following scenario: State 1 State 2 State 3 Probability 25% 50% 25% Spot rate $ 2.20/E $ 2.00/E $ 1.80/f P E3,000 E2,500 E2,000 P $6,600 $ 5,000 $3,600 where, P = Pound sterling price of the asset held by the U.S. firm P = Dollar price of the same asset Which of the following conclusions are correct? Most of the volatility of the dollar value of the British asset can be removed by hedging exchange risk because b2[Var(S)] and VAR(e) are 1,125,000 ($)2 and 2,500 ($)2 respectively. Most of the volatility of the dollar value of the British asset can be removed by hedging exchange risk because b2[Var(S)] and VAR(e) are 125,000 ($)2 and -127,500 ($)2 respectively. Most of the volatility of the dollar value of the British asset cannot be removed by hedging exchange risk because b2[Var(S)] and VAR(e) are 236,717 ($)2 and 493,751 ($)2 respectively. Most of the volatility of the dollar value of the British asset cannot be removed by hedging exchange risk because b2[Var(S)] and VAR(e) are 125,000 ($)2 and -127,500 ($)2 respectively