Question: We discovered that t and Pearson's correlation are linked because you can convert between t and r using pseudo coding, and the resulting t acquired
We discovered that t and Pearson's correlation are linked because you can convert between t and r using pseudo coding, and the resulting t acquired from the correlation is the same as the t received from the independent sample. Does the same thing hold true when doing a one-way ANOVA between subjects? Can you convert between the statistics for correlation and ANOVA if you dummy code more than two groups and perform a correlation? What does the theory behind correlation, t, and ANOVA say?
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