Question: When are Rolle's theorem and the Mean Value Theorem equivalent? Of(a) f(b ) Of(a) = -f(b) Of(a) = f(b) X

When are Rolle's theorem and the Mean Value Theorem equivalent? Of(a)
f(b ) Of(a) = -f(b) Of(a) = f(b) X

When are Rolle's theorem and the Mean Value Theorem equivalent? Of(a) f(b ) Of(a) = -f(b) Of(a) = f(b) X

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