Question: When calculating the WACC, why is it that only debt has an adjustment factor ( 1 - T ) ? Because the interest on debt

When calculating the WACC, why is it that onlydebthas an adjustment factor (1-T)?
Because the interest on debt is tax deductible
Because debt is offset by equity from investors.
Because dividends aren't paid on debt.
Because debt is discounted as a cost of capital

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