Question: When D died in 2 0 2 2 , D had only $ 5 0 , 0 0 0 . 0 0 in a bank
When D died in D had only $ in a bank account and na other assets. However, this is the same D encountered in question above, and had been recelving $ income annually from the trust, the corpus of which had a value of $ at death. D was personally liable for obligations in the amount of $ when died. This is therefore a taxable estate. Could Congress properly take the position that the deduction for claims should not exceed $ since that is all D had from which claims could be paid, and that it is of no estate tax
significance if C pays $ of Ds claim from Cs own separate funds? What has Congress done about this?
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