Which comment is false concerning the at$-$risk rules and individual taxpayers?

Question $4$ options:

Although a taxpayer may technically be $"$at$-$risk" for amounts spent on personal activities, these expenditures cannot be used to increase the taxpayer's at$-$ risk amount for the purposes of applying loss limitations$.$

One set of taxpayer actions may generate a loss, and another set may generate income. If the two sets are considered a single activity for purposes of the at$-$risk rules, the at$-$risk rules will not restrict the ability to offset the loss against the income.

The at$-$risk rules forbid using losses from one activity to offset income from other activities.

If a taxpayer actively participates in the management of a trade or business, then each activity must, nonetheless, be examined to determine what aggregation exists within the trade or business for purposes of the at$-$risk rules.