Which one of these is the correct formula for computing the current value of a $$1,000,10-$year, zero coupon bond if the discount rate is $8$ percent?

$PV=$$$1,\frac{000}{[1+(\frac{0\mathrm{.}08}{2}){]}^{20}}$

$PV=$$$1,\frac{000}{{1\mathrm{.}08}^{10}}$

$PV=$$$1,000(1\mathrm{.}08{)}^{10}$

$PV=$$$1,000[1+(\frac{0\mathrm{.}08}{2}){]}^{20}$