Question: Why is saving virtuous in Smith's Analysis? Is the association between private thrift and public (Government's) prodigality still a common opinion? Do you think it

  1. Why is saving virtuous in Smith's Analysis? Is the association between private thrift and public (Government's) prodigality still a common opinion? Do you think it is justified?
  2. Is Smith's common interpretation as a Laissez-faire economist a misinterpretation? What would be the politics of Adam Smith today? Are his arguments in favor of public education still significant today?

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