Question: why we can rewrite cos^2(x)-sin^2(x)=0 as cos(2x)=0?
why we can rewrite cos^2(x)-sin^2(x)=0 as cos(2x)=0?
Step by Step Solution
There are 3 Steps involved in it
1 Expert Approved Answer
Step: 1 Unlock
Question Has Been Solved by an Expert!
Get step-by-step solutions from verified subject matter experts
Step: 2 Unlock
Step: 3 Unlock
