You are evaluating a closed$-$end mutual fund and see that its price is different from its net asset value $($NAV$).$ The fund has an expense

ratio $()$ of $2\mathrm{.}80\%$ and a dividend yield $(\frac{?}{\text{b}\text{a}\text{r}}())$ of $4\mathrm{.}00\%.$ The fund has experienced a risk$-$adjusted abnormal return $($a$)$ of $3\mathrm{.}40\%.$

By what amount $($premium or discount$)$ is the fund likely to trade relative to its NAV?

Note: Use a minus sign if the amount is a discount. Round your answer to $2$ decimal places.

Amount