Question: (i) If we had introduced the proof that kTMs were the same as TMs earlier, would it have made the proof that PM = TM,

(i) If we had introduced the proof that kTMs were the same as TMs earlier, would it have made the proof that PM = TM, or that 2PDA = TM, any easier?
(ii) If we had introduced the proof that NTM = TM earlier, would it have made the proof that PM = TM, or that 2PDA = TM, any easier?

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