Suppose that the correlation between x1 and x2 equals 0. Then, for multiple regression with those predictors, it can be shown that the slope for x1 is the same as in bivariate regression when x1 is the only predictor. Explain why you would expect this to be true. (Hint: If you don’t control x2, would you expect it to have an impact on how x1 affects y, if x1 and x2 have correlation of 0?)