Question: Suppose that the IS schedule is vertical because the interest elasticity of investment demand is zero; investment is completely insensitive to the interest rate. Is

Suppose that the IS schedule is vertical because the interest elasticity of investment demand is zero; investment is completely insensitive to the interest rate. Is it still true that for the case of IS shocks a money-supply target is preferable to an interest-rate target? Show why or why not using the IS-LM graphs?

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