Question: Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us. (a) Suppose n =

Suppose we have a binomial experiment in which success is defined to be a particular quality or attribute that interests us.
(a) Suppose n = 100 and p = 0.23. Can we safely approximate the ^p distribution by a normal distribution? Why? Compute μ^p and σ^p .
(b) Suppose n = 20 and p = 0.23. Can we safely approximate the ^p distribution by a normal distribution? Why or why not?

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