The P-value of 0.17 in part a of the previous exercise suggests that LP_200 plausibly had no

Question:

The P-value of 0.17 in part a of the previous exercise suggests that LP_200 plausibly had no effect on BP, once BP_60 is in the model. Yet when LP_200 is the sole predictor of BP, the correlation is 0.58 and the significance test for its effect has a P-value of 0.000, suggesting very strong evidence of an effect. Explain why this is not a contradiction.