To qualify as a liability, a past transaction must exist Is this the case with pensions and OPEBs How does the use of financial statements for predicting future cash flows as opposed to evaluating management performance enter the picture

Question: To qualify as a liability, a past transaction must exist. Is this the case with pensions and OPEBs? How does the use of financial statements

To qualify as a liability, a past transaction must exist. Is this the case with pensions and OPEBs? How does the use of for predicting future cash flows as opposed to evaluating management performance enter the picture?

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