Question: Use the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals to prove the following version of the Mean Value Theorem for Derivatives. If C1[a, b], then

Use the First Mean Value Theorem for Integrals to prove the following version of the Mean Value Theorem for Derivatives. If ∈ C1[a, b], then there is an x0 ∈ [a, b] such that
f(b) - f(a) = (b - a)f'(x0).

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