Question: Consider a Bernoulli trial where Pr (1) = p and Pr (0) = 1 p. suppose this Bernoulli trial is repeated n times. (a)

Consider a Bernoulli trial where Pr (1) = p and Pr (0) = 1 – p. suppose this Bernoulli trial is repeated n times.
(a) Plot the probability mass function for a Binomial random variable, X, with p = 1/ 5 and n = 10.
(b) Plot the corresponding probability mass function for a Poisson random variable X with a= np= 2.
(c) Compare Pr (X ≥ 5) as computed by both the Binomial and Poisson random variables. Is the Poisson random variable a good approximation for the Binomial random variable for this example?

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