Question: Does it follow that because we observe that the aver-age product of labor is higher for Firm 1 than for Firm 2, Firm 1 is

Does it follow that because we observe that the aver-age product of labor is higher for Firm 1 than for Firm 2, Firm 1 is more productive in the sense that it can produce more output from a given amount of inputs? Why?

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