Question: For n = 1, 2,¦., let the r.v. X n be defined by e with probability 0 with probability 1-n-2. Xn -2

Then show that
(i)
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(Indeed)
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(ii)
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For any r > 0 (in fact,
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For all r > 0.
e" with probability 0 with probability 1-n-2. Xn -2
Step by Step Solution
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i For 0 we have Therefore X n as n 0 by Exercise 4... View full answer
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