Let f(x) = 1 - x2/3. Show that f(-1) = f(-1) = f(1) but there is no

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Let f(x) = 1 - x2/3. Show that f(-1) = f(-1) = f(1) but there is no number c in (-1, 1) such that f'(c). Why does this not contradict Rolle's Theorem?

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Calculus Early Transcendentals

ISBN: 978-0538497909

7th edition

Authors: James Stewart

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Question Posted: Mar 04, 2016 06:53 AM

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Let f(x) = 1 - x2/3. Show that f(-1) = f(-1) = f(1) but there is no

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fx 1 x 23 f1 1 1 23 11 0 f1 fx 23x ...View the full answer

Calculus Early Transcendentals

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