Question: Let f(x) = 1 - x2/3. Show that f(-1) = f(-1) = f(1) but there is no number c in (-1, 1) such that f'(c).

Let f(x) = 1 - x2/3. Show that f(-1) = f(-1) = f(1) but there is no number c in (-1, 1) such that f'(c). Why does this not contradict Rolle's Theorem?

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