Question: Let f(x) = | x 1|. Show that there is no value of such that f(3) f(0) = f(c)(3 0). Why does this

Let f(x) = | x – 1|. Show that there is no value of such that f(3) –f(0) = f’(c)(3 – 0). Why does this not contradict the Mean Value Theorem?

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