Question: Let f(x) = (x 1)2. Show that f (0) = f (2) but there is no number in (0, 2) such that f(c) =

Let f(x) = (x – 1)–2. Show that f (0) = f (2) but there is no number in (0, 2) such that f’(c) = 0. Why does this not contradict Role’s Theorem?

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