Question: Let f(x) = 1 x2/3. Show that f( 1) = f(1) but there is no number c in (1, 1) such that f(c) =

Let f(x) = 1 – x2/3. Show that f(– 1) = f(1) but there is no number c in (–1, 1) such that f’(c) = 0. Why does this not contradict Role’s Theorem?

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