Question: Let {v1 ( ( ( ( ( v} be an orthogonal basis for and let W = span (v1( ( ( ( ( vn). Is

Let {v1 ( ( ( ( ( v} be an orthogonal basis for and let W = span (v1( ( ( ( ( vn). Is it necessarily true that W = span(vk+1( ( ( ( (vn)? Either prove that it is true or find a counterexample.

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