Question: Prove that if f (0) = g(0) and f(x) g(x) for x 0, then f (x) g(x) for all x 0.

Prove that if f (0) = g(0) and f′(x) ≤ g′(x) for x ≥ 0, then f (x) ≤ g(x) for all x ≥ 0.

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