Question: Let (y) = 2 tan 1 (e y ) /2. Prove that gd(y) = (y). Show that gd(y) = '(y) and (0) =

Let ƒ(y) = 2 tan−1(ey) − π/2. Prove that gd(y) = ƒ(y). Show that gd(y) = ƒ'(y) and ƒ (0) = gd(0).

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