Question: Suppose that P(Y i = 1) = 1 P(Y i = 0) = , i = 1, . . . , n, where {Y
Suppose that P(Yi = 1) = 1 – P(Yi = 0) = π, i = 1, . . . , n, where {Yi} are independent. Let Y = ∑i Yi).
a. What are var(Y) and the distribution of Y?
b. When {Yi} instead have pairwise correlation ρ > 0, show that var(Y) > nπ(1 – π), overdispersion relative to the binomial. [Altharn (1978) discussed generalizations of the binomial that allow correlated trials.]
c. Suppose that heterogeneity exists: P(Yi = 1|π) = π for all i, but π is a random variable with density function g(.) on [0, 11 having mean ρ and positive variance. Show that var(Y) > nρ(l – ρ). (When π has a beta distribution, Y has the beta-binomial distribution of Section 13.3.)
d. Suppose that P(Yi = 1|πi) = πi, i = 1,.. .,n, where (πi) are independent from g(). Explain why Y has a bin(n, ρ) distribution unconditionally but not conditionally on {πi}.
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a Var Y n1 binomial b Var Y VarY i 2 i n1 c Var Y EVarY Var EY En1 Varn n nE 2 n 2 E 2 n 2 2 n n 2 ... View full answer
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