Question: For the k-variable regression model, it can be shown that the variance of the kth (k = 2, 3, . . . , K) partial

For the k-variable regression model, it can be shown that the variance of the kth (k = 2, 3, . . . , K) partial regression coefficient given in Eq. (7.5.6) can also be expressed as

(1 – – R²' var (Bt) – R}, 1 – n - k of п — k


where σ2= variance of Y, σ2= variance of the kth explanatory variable, R2= Rfrom the regression of Xk on the remaining X variables, and R2 = coefficient of determination from the multiple regression, that is, regression of Y on all the X variables.

a. Other things the same, if σ2k increases, what happens to var (β̂k)? What are the implications for the multicollinearity problem?

b. What happens to the preceding formula when collinearity is perfect?

c. True or false: €œThe variance of β̂k decreases as R2 rises, so that the effect of a high R2k can be offset by a high R2.€

(1 R' var (Bt) R}, 1 n - k of k

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