An MPC equal to 0 implies a multiplier of 1, meaning that a $1 increase in autonomous expenditures would increase real GDP by only $1. Why does an MPC equal to 0 result in no multiplier effect? Conversely, an MPC equal to 1 implies an infinite multiplier, meaning that a $1 increase in autonomous expenditures would increase real GDP by an infinite amount. Why does an MPC of 1 result in an infinite multiplier? Explain your answers using the logic of the multiplier process.