Question: Assume that we have a binomial distribution with n = 100 and p = 0.1. It is impossible to get 101 successes in such a

Assume that we have a binomial distribution with n = 100 and p = 0.1. It is impossible to get 101 successes in such a binomial distribution, but we can compute the probability that x = 101 if we use the Poisson distribution to approximate the binomial distribution, and the result is 4.82 × 10-64. How does that result agree with the impossibility of having x = 101 with a binomial distribution?

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