Assume that we have a binomial distribution with n = 100 and p = 0.1. It is

Question:

Assume that we have a binomial distribution with n = 100 and p = 0.1. It is impossible to get 101 successes in such a binomial distribution, but we can compute the probability that x = 101 if we use the Poisson distribution to approximate the binomial distribution, and the result is 4.82 × 10^-64. How does that result agree with the impossibility of having x = 101 with a binomial distribution?

Distribution
The word "distribution" has several meanings in the financial world, most of them pertaining to the payment of assets from a fund, account, or individual security to an investor or beneficiary. Retirement account distributions are among the most...