Let \(u_{n} \in \mathcal{L}^{p}, p \geqslant 1\), for all \(n \in \mathbb{N}\). What can you say about \(u\) and \(w\) if you know that \(\lim _{n ightarrow \infty} \int\left|u_{n}-uight|^{p} d \mu=0\) and \(\lim _{n ightarrow \infty} u_{n}(x)=w(x)\) for almost every \(x\) ?