Suppose that a function (x) is defined for all x in [-1, 1]. Can anything be said
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Suppose that a function ƒ(x) is defined for all x in [-1, 1]. Can anything be said about the existence of limx→0ƒ(x)? Give reasons for your answer.
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No we cannot determine the existence of limx0x based solely on the fact that x is defined for all ...View the full answer
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Related Book For
Thomas Calculus Early Transcendentals
ISBN: 9780321884077
13th Edition
Authors: Joel R Hass, Christopher E Heil, Maurice D Weir
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