Canada, through its dividend tax credit, has achieved partial integration of its corporate income tax with its personal income tax. Would a move to more complete integration, or some other means of eliminating “double” taxation of corporate sector income, make sense from the standpoint of the Haig-Simons definition of income? How would you expect a move to full integration to affect the following in Canada: the allocation of capital between the corporate and noncorporate sectors, the share of corporate earnings that is distributed, and the ratio of debt to equity?