Instead of the Bell-CHSH inequality in the text, consider an inequality obtained in the same way from
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Instead of the Bell-CHSH inequality in the text, consider an inequality obtained in the same way from \(\tilde{M}=\left(A+A^{\prime}\right) B^{\prime}+\left(A-A^{\prime}\right) B\) instead of \(M\). Is it still violated by quantum mechanics?
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