We saw in the text that \([\phi(\vec{x}, t), \phi(\vec{y}, t)]=0\) for a bosonic field. Show also that \(\{\psi(\vec{x}, t), \psi(\vec{y}, t)\}=0\) for a fermion. What relation will we have for the product \(\phi(\vec{x}, t) \psi(\vec{y}, t)\) ?