Question: 3. [2 pt] Is it true that for any function f : A -> B and C, D C A, if OnD =0, then f(C)

3. [2 pt] Is it true that for any function f : A
3. [2 pt] Is it true that for any function f : A -> B and C, D C A, if OnD =0, then f(C) nf(D) =0? Give a proof or a counterexample

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