Question: (3) (40 points) Recall the approximate formulas for change in present value when interest rate changes. In terms of the modified quantities M(i)- -P'(i)/P(i),C(i) -

 (3) (40 points) Recall the approximate formulas for change in present

(3) (40 points) Recall the approximate formulas for change in present value when interest rate changes. In terms of the "modified" quantities M(i)- -P'(i)/P(i),C(i) - P(i)/P(i) there is a straightforward Taylor approximation (a)(10 points) If the cash flow is a single payment of F $1000.00 at timet 10, then Pli) = $1000(1 + i)-10. Let io = 10% = .1 and calculate P(1), M(1), C(1) (b)(10 points) Use the quantities you just calculated in (a) to calculate the first and second order approximations to P(.09). Compare with the exact P(.09) $1000 (1.09)-10. In terms of the Macaulay duration D there's a more accurate first order formula . In fact this is exact if the cash flow consists of a single payment at future time t- D But what if the cash flow consists of two payments (the next simplest case)? For simplicity assume a payment of S500/(1.1) at timet 9 and 8500 (1.1) at t 11. I'm happy to tell you that P(.1) is the same as you calculated in part (a), and the Macaulay duration D 10 (c) (20 points) Calculate P(.09) exactly, and the Macaulay first order approximation. How close are they? (You may have to keep a lot of digits of accuracy!) (3) (40 points) Recall the approximate formulas for change in present value when interest rate changes. In terms of the "modified" quantities M(i)- -P'(i)/P(i),C(i) - P(i)/P(i) there is a straightforward Taylor approximation (a)(10 points) If the cash flow is a single payment of F $1000.00 at timet 10, then Pli) = $1000(1 + i)-10. Let io = 10% = .1 and calculate P(1), M(1), C(1) (b)(10 points) Use the quantities you just calculated in (a) to calculate the first and second order approximations to P(.09). Compare with the exact P(.09) $1000 (1.09)-10. In terms of the Macaulay duration D there's a more accurate first order formula . In fact this is exact if the cash flow consists of a single payment at future time t- D But what if the cash flow consists of two payments (the next simplest case)? For simplicity assume a payment of S500/(1.1) at timet 9 and 8500 (1.1) at t 11. I'm happy to tell you that P(.1) is the same as you calculated in part (a), and the Macaulay duration D 10 (c) (20 points) Calculate P(.09) exactly, and the Macaulay first order approximation. How close are they? (You may have to keep a lot of digits of accuracy!)

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