A 50-year-old woman presents with fatigue, insomnia, hot flashes, night sweats, and absence of menses for the last 5 months (secondary amenorrhea). Her urine hCG test is negative. Laboratory tests reveal decreased serum estrogen and increased serum FSH and LH levels. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this individual’s clinical signs and symptoms? 

a. 17-hydroxylase deficiency of the adrenal cortex 

b. Prolactin-secreting tumor of the anterior pituitary 

c. Gonadotropin-releasing

Answer rating: 100% (QA)

Answer menopause The climacteric or perimenopausal period normally begins as early as 40 years of age with commencement of the regression of ovarian function Depletion of primordial ovarian follicles ... View the full answer