A study reported that two covid groups were compared. One group was given an investigational medication (trt 1) and the other was given placebo (with treatment of the symptoms). The average time to recovery as measured by 24 hour fever free was not significantly different (p=0.72) between the two groups.The report states that the probability that the two groups are the same with respect to average time to recovery is high about 0.72.Thus the two averages are likely the same and the study has showed no difference in the two groups. Is this conclusion correct? If so, explain briefly, if not explain why not.

The report states that the probability that the two groups are the same (with respect to average time to recovery) is high - about 0.72. Thus the two averages are likely the same and the study has showed no difference in the groups.

Is this conclusion correct? If so explain briefly. If not, explain why not.