Chapter 9Punishment and Sentencing MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. Which of the following is NOT one of the four basic philosophical reasons for sentencing? a. Deterrence b. Incapacitation c. Retribution d. Revenge 2. a. b. c. d. The strategy of preventing crime through the threat of punishment is called: Deterrence Incapacitation Rehabilitation Retribution 3. a. b. c. d. What is the oldest and most common justification for punishment? Deterrence Incapacitation Rehabilitation Retribution 4. a. b. c. d. The basic idea of ____ is that by punishing one person, others will be dissuaded from committing a similar crime. Absolute deterrence Specific deterrence Just deterrence General deterrence 5. a. b. c. d. Which of the following sentencing philosophies is viewed as the most humane? Deterrence Incapacitation Just deserts Rehabilitation 1 6. a. b. c. d. A strategy for preventing crime by detaining wrongdoers in prison is: Retribution Deterrence Incapacitation Just deserts 7. a. b. c. d. A form of deterrence that is designed to prevent the offender from offending again is: General deterrence Individualized deterrence Offender-based deterrence Specific deterrence 8. a. b. c. d. When indeterminate sentencing is used, the ________ determines the date of release. Judge Jury Parole board Legislature 9. What type of sentencing occurs when a judge determines the minimum and maximum terms of imprisonment? Determinate Indeterminate Mandatory Truth in a. b. c. d. 10. a. b. c. d. A condition of early release in which a prisoner is released from a correctional facility but is not freed from the legal custody and supervision of the state is: Good-time Probation Parole Truth-in-sentencing 2 11. a. b. c. d. 12. a. b. c. d. 13. a. b. c. d. 14. a. b. c. d. A period of incarceration that is fixed by a sentencing authority and cannot be reduced by judges or other corrections officials is called ____ sentencing. Determinate Indeterminate Mandatory Truth in All but four states allow prisoners the opportunity to reduce their sentences by doing \"good time,\" or behaving well, as determined by The parole board Prison administrators The sentencing judge The jury What type of sentencing law requires that murderers and others convicted of serious crimes complete a certain percentage their sentences with no time off for good behavior? Determinate sentencing laws Indeterminate sentencing laws Mandatory sentencing laws Truth in sentencing laws Truth-in-sentencing laws, in the majority of states, require offenders to serve at least ____ of the sentence handed down by the judge. 60% 75% 85% 100% 15. A sum of money paid in compensation for damages done to the victim is: a. A fine b. Community service c. Restitution d. Bond 3 16. Restitution fits best with the ____ philosophy of punishment. a. Deterrence b. Retribution c. Restorative justice d. Rehabilitation 17. House arrest, electronic monitoring, and boot camp are all examples of: a. Probation b. Incarceration c. Community service d. Alternative sanctions 18. The harshest sentence a court can assign is: a. Capital punishment b. Alternative sanctions c. Restorative justice d. Incarceration 19. Who prepares the presentence investigation report? a. The judge b. A probation officer c. The prosecutor d. The court clerk 20. What is the primary factor in a judge's sentencing decision? a. Aggravating circumstances b. Judicial philosophy c. Mitigating circumstances d. Seriousness of the crime 21. a. b. c. d. Judges who make decisions based on ____ are often seen as undermining the pleabargaining process. Aggravating circumstances Conviction offense Mitigating circumstances Real offense 4 22. a. b. c. d. 23. a. b. c. d. Any circumstance accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a lighter sentence is known as a(n) ____. Aggravating circumstance Conviction circumstance Mitigating circumstance Real circumstance A(n) ____ circumstance is any circumstance accompanying the commission of a crime that may justify a harsher sentence. Aggravating Conviction Mitigating Real 24. Mitigating circumstances may include: a. A prior record b. A passive role in the offense c. Use of a weapon d. Disregard for the safety of others 25. A situation in which those convicted of similar crimes do not receive similar sentences is: a. Sentencing disparity b. Sentencing discrimination c. Sentencing bias d. Sentencing equity 26. a. b. c. d. A situation in which the length of a sentence appears to be influenced by a defendant's race, gender, economic status, or other factor not directly related to the crime he or she committed is: Sentencing disparity Sentencing discrimination Sentencing bias Sentencing equity 5 27. Sentencing guidelines require judges to determine a defendant's sentencing using: a. A list of statutorily created criminal sentences b. A sentencing grid c. A presentence investigation report d. The prosecutor's recommendation 28. a. b. c. d. 29. a. b. c. d. 30. a. b. c. d. In an effort to eliminate the inequities of disparity by removing judicial bias from the sentencing process, many states and the federal government have turned to ____, which require judges to dispense legislatively determined sentences based on factors such as the seriousness of the crime and the offender's prior record. Mandatory sentencing laws Indeterminate sentencing laws Sentencing guidelines Truth-in-sentencing laws A stipulation in many federal and state sentencing guidelines that allows a judge to adjust his or her sentencing decision based on the special circumstances of a particular case is called a(n) ____. Aggravating circumstance Departure Disposition Mitigating circumstance Statutorily determined punishments that must be applied to those who are convicted of specific crimes are: Mandatory sentencing guidelines Habitual offender laws Indeterminate sentencing laws Determinate sentencing laws 31. Statutes that require lengthy prison sentences for those who are convicted of multiple felonies are: a. Mandatory sentences b. Habitual offender laws c. Truth-in-sentencing laws d. Determinate sentencing 6 32. a. b. c. d. The United States Supreme Court paved the way for three-strikes laws when it ruled in ____ that Texas' habitual offender statute did not constitute \"cruel and unusual punishment\" under the Eighth Amendment. Rummel v. Estelle United States v. Booker Weems v. United States Furman v. Georgia 33. Opponents of victim impact statements argue that they a. Violate the fifth amendment rights of offenders b. Result in reduced sentences for the offender c. Are prejudicial and inflammatory d. Constitute double jeopardy 34. Which is the dominant method of execution in the United States today? a. The gas chamber b. Electrocution in an electric chair c. Hanging d. Lethal injection 35. In Weems v. United States, the Supreme Court ruled that: a. What is cruel and unusual is defined by the changing norms of society b. The death penalty is arbitrary c. Age is a mitigating circumstance when assigning the death penalty d. That capital punishment is constitutional 36. a. b. c. d. In ____ the U.S. Supreme Court did not rule that the death penalty inherently violated the Eighth Amendment's protection against cruel and unusual punishment or the Fourteenth Amendment's guarantee of due process, only that it did so as practiced by the states. Atkins v. Virginia Furman v. Georgia Gregg v. Georgia Roper v. Simmons 7 37. a. b. c. d. 38. a. b. c. d. 39. a. b. c. d. According to the bifurcated process in capital cases, the decision to sentence a defendant to death must be made by: The judge The legislature The jury The prosecutor In which case was the U. S. Supreme Court concerned with the execution of mentally handicapped criminals? Atkins v. Virginia Furman v. Georgia Gregg v. Georgia Roper v. Simmons Which landmark case effectively ended the execution of those who committed crimes as juveniles? Atkins v. Virginia Furman v. Georgia Gregg v. Georgia Roper v. Simmons 40. Roper v. Simmons prohibited the death penalty for persons under the age of: a. 15 b. 16 c. 17 d. 18 41. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is not one of the mitigating circumstances that will prevent a defendant found guilty of first degree murder from receiving the death penalty? Age Insanity Mentally handicapped Physically handicapped 8 42. Which Amendment guards against "cruel and unusual punishment?" a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Sixth d. Eighth 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. b. c. d. According to death penalty advocates, which of the four justifications for punishment is the only one NOT met through capital punishment? Deterrence Incapacitation Rehabilitation Retribution What single factor is widely believed to contribute the most to the criminal justice system's fallibility? DNA technology Inadequate allocation of funds Lying by jailhouse snitches Unsatisfactory legal representation 45. In the past 10 years, the annual number of executions in the United States: a. Has remained stable b. Has increased dramatically c. Has decreased d. Has dropped to almost zero TRUE/FALSE 46. The oldest and most common justification for punishing someone is incapacitation. 47. Specific deterrence assumes that an individual, after being punished once for a certain act, will be less likely to repeat that act because she or he does not want to be punished again. 48. Determinate sentencing has severely restricted judicial discretion in many jurisdictions. 9 49. When an offender is sentenced under the determinate sentencing philosophy, his or her release date is determined by the parole board. 50. Truth-in-sentencing laws require defendants to serve 100% of their sentences. 51. "Good time" is a reduction in time served by prisoners based on good behavior, conformity to rules, and other positive actions. 52. A fine is a direct payment to the victim or victims of a crime. 53. Alternative sanctions combine probation with other dispositions such as electronic monitoring, house arrest, boot camps, and shock incarceration. 54. Judges who make sentencing decisions based on the real offense are often seen as undermining the plea-bargain process. 55. When two criminals receive different sentences for the same offense, this is known as sentencing discrimination. 56. Women who are convicted of crimes are more likely than their male counterparts to be sentenced to prison. 57. It is the jury, not the judge, who decides whether a convict eligible for the death penalty will in fact be executed. 58. No method of execution has ever been found to be unconstitutional by the Supreme Court. 59. Advocates of the death penalty argue that it is a strong general deterrent. 60. The number of offenders being executed by the states is steadily increasing. 10 Chapter 10Probation and Community Corrections MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a. b. c. d. 2. a. b. c. d. Which goal of corrections focuses on preparing the offender for a return to the community unmarred by further criminal behavior? Deterrence Diversion Incapacitation Reintegration A strategy to divert those offenders who qualify away from prison and jail and toward community-based and intermediate sanctions is: Deterrence Diversion Incapacitation Reintegration 3. All of the following are justifications for community-based corrections programs EXCEPT: a. Community-based corrections programs satisfy the public's need for punishment b. Community-based corrections programs assist offenders with reintegration into the community c. Community-based corrections programs divert offenders from prison and jails d. Community-based corrections programs are a low-cost alternative to prison 4. a. b. c. d. Reintegration has a strong theoretical basis in the ____ philosophy of punishment. Retribution Incapacitation Deterrence Rehabilitation 5. a. b. c. d. The most common form of punishment in the United States is: Imprisonment Probation Community service Restitution 1 6. a. b. c. d. 7. a. b. c. d. 8. a. b. c. d. 9. a. b. c. d. What is a judicially imposed condition in which an offender is sentenced after being convicted of a crime, but is not required to begin serving the sentence immediately? Community corrections Probation Split sentence probation Suspended sentence In ____, also known as shock probation, the offender is sentenced to a specific amount of time in prison or jail, to be followed by a period of probation. Intermittent incarceration Shock incarceration Suspended sentence Split sentence probation In this arrangement, an offender is sentenced to prison or jail with the understanding that after a period of time, he or she may petition the court to be released on probation. Intermittent incarceration Shock incarceration Suspended sentence Split sentence probation With ____, the offender spends a certain amount of time each week, usually the weekends, in a jail, workhouse, or other government institution. Intermittent incarceration Shock incarceration Suspended sentence Split sentence probation 10. About ______________ of all probationers have been found guilty of a felony. a. One-tenth b. One-third c. One-half d. Three-fourths 2 11. An offender would likely be denied probation in all of the following circumstances EXCEPT: a. The offender is addicted to narcotics b. The offender has been convicted of two or more offenses c. The offender used a weapon during the commission of the crime d. The offender was convicted of a felony 12. a. b. c. d. In general, the conditions placed on a probationer fall into three categories. Which of the following is not one of these conditions? Community conditions Punitive conditions Standard conditions Treatment conditions 13. Conditions imposed on all probationers are: a. Community b. Punitive c. Standard d. Treatment 14. a. b. c. d. 15. a. b. c. d. Which type of condition reflects the seriousness of the offense and is included to increase the punishment of the offender? Community Punitive Standard Treatment As a means to reverse patterns of self-destructive behavior, ____ conditions are imposed on the offender. Community Punitive Standard Treatment 3 16. The ideal probation officer-offender relationship is based on ____. a. Authority b. Investigations c. Supervision d. Trust 17. a. b. c. d. 18. a. b. c. d. 19. a. b. c. d. 20. a. b. c. d. Failing to report a change of address or testing positive for drug use is a ____ violation which may result in revocation of probation. Common Punitive Standard Technical In which court case did the U. S. Supreme Court rule that a meeting between a probation officer and client does not equal custody, and therefore, the Fifth Amendment protection against self-incrimination does not apply? Gagnon v. Scarpeli Griffin v. Wisconsin Minnesota v. Murphy Morrisey v. Brewer In this appearance before a "disinterested person," the facts of a probation violation or arrest are presented, and it is determined whether probable cause for revoking probation exists. Preliminary hearing Revocation hearing Preliminary sentencing Revocation sentencing During this hearing the probation agency presents evidence to support its claim of violation, and the probationer can attempt to refute this evidence. Preliminary hearing Revocation hearing Preliminary sentencing Revocation sentencing 4 21. a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. During the ____, if the presiding body rules against the probationer, the judge must then decide whether to impose incarceration and for what length of time. Preliminary hearing Revocation hearing Preliminary sentencing Revocation sentencing In which cases did the Court rule that probationers were entitled to an attorney during the revocation process? Morrisey v. Brewer Gagnon v. Scarpelli Minnesota v. Murphy Mempa v. Rhay 23. A process by which the government seizes private property attached to criminal activity is: a. Community service b. Fines c. Forfeiture d. Restitution 24. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is not one of the options of intermediate sanctions that judges have in sentencing? Community service Fines Imprisonment Restitution 25. Which of the following is true regarding intermediate sanctions? a. Intermediate sanctions are less restrictive than probation and more restrictive than imprisonment b. Intermediate sanctions provide a number of additional sentencing options for wrongdoers who require stricter supervision than that supplied by probation c. Intermediate sanctions are not designed to match specific punishment and treatment of an individual offender with a corrections program that reflects the offender's situation d. Intermediate sanctions are not intended to alleviate pressure on overcrowded facilities and understaffed probation departments 5 26. a. b. c. d. What is an alternative to trial offered by a judge or prosecutor, in which the offender agrees to participate in a specified counseling treatment program in return for withdrawal of the charges? Day reporting center Home confinement Pretrial diversion program Probation office 27. The fastest growing form of pretrial diversion in the country is: a. Day reporting centers b. Drug court c. Electronic monitoring d. Boot camp 28. a. b. c. d. If an offender chooses to attend drug court, they place themselves in the hands of a ____ who will enforce a mixture of treatment and sanctions in an attempt to cure their addiction. Judge Jury Probation officer Prosecutor 29. On successful completion of a drug court program, the offender is usually rewarded by: a. Having all charges against them dropped b. Spending a limited time in jail c. Spending a limited time in prison d. Spending a limited time on probation 30. a. b. c. d. A community-based corrections center to which offenders report on a daily basis for the purpose of treatment, education, and incapacitation is a: Day reporting center Treatment center Pretrial diversion program Probation office 6 31. Day reporting centers were first used in a. Norway b. United States c. Australia d. Great Britain 32. Intensive supervision probation has two functions: to divert offenders from prison and jail, and to: a. Place offenders under higher levels of control b. Rehabilitate offenders through intensive treatment c. Shock probationers into compliance with the law d. Instill self-respect and discipline into probationers 33. a. b. c. d. 34. a. b. c. d. 35. a. b. c. d. A punishment-oriented form of probation in which the offender is placed under stricter and more frequent surveillance and control than conventional probation by probation officers with limited caseloads is a(n): Day reporting center Home confinement Intensive supervision probation Pretrial diversion program Offenders sentenced to shock incarceration usually spend ____ in prison or jail before being released and resentenced to probation. 90 days 6 months 9 months 1 year Which form of shock incarceration was modeled after military basic training, emphasizing strict discipline, manual labor, and physical training? Boot camp Intensive supervision probation Pretrial diversion program Scared straight 7 36. Scared Straight and boot camp are two forms of ____. a. Home confinement b. Intensive supervision probation c. Pretrial diversion programming d. Shock incarceration 37. a. b. c. d. 38. a. b. c. d. 39. a. b. c. d. A community-based sanction in which offenders serve their terms of incarceration in their homes is called: Home confinement Intensive supervision probation Pretrial diversion program Shock incarceration What level of home monitoring requires the offender to remain home at all times, save for medical emergencies? Curfew Home detention Home incarceration Home probation What type of electronic monitoring involves an offender being contacted periodically by telephone or beeper to verify his or her whereabouts? Programmed contact Programmed dialers Receiver-contacts Receiver-dialers 40. The most restrictive level of home monitoring is: a. Curfew b. Home detention c. Home incarceration d. Electronic monitoring 8 41. a. b. c. d. 42. a. b. c. d. 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d. What level of home monitoring requires offenders to be in their homes at specific hours, usually at night? Curfew Home detention Home incarceration Home probation What type of electronic monitoring involves an offender wearing a device around the wrist, ankle, or neck, which sends out a continuous signal? Programmed contact Programmed dialers Continuous signaling Continuous dialers What level of home monitoring requires that offenders remain home at all times, with exceptions being made for education, employment, counseling, or other specified activities such as the purchase of food, or in some instances attendance at religious ceremonies? Curfew Home detention Home incarceration Home probation This is the criticism that intermediate sanctions designed to divert offenders from prison actually increase the number of citizens who are under the control and surveillance of the American corrections system. Diversion Reintegration Scared Straight Widening the net The idea that the more effectively offenders are controlled, the more likely they are to be caught violating the terms of their conditional release is called _____________________________. Widening the net The paradox of community corrections Diversion Reintegration 9 TRUE/FALSE 46. Community-based corrections programs are more cost efficient than incarceration. 47. Community-based corrections are an important means of diverting criminals to alternative modes of punishment so that scarce incarceration resources are consumed by only the most dangerous criminals. 48. Probation is the least common form of punishment in the United States. 49. Every offender is eligible for probation. 50. Half of all probationers have been found guilty of a misdemeanor, and half have been found guilty of a felony. 51. The ideal probation officer-offender relationship is based on supervision and authority. 52. Conditions such as fines, restitution, and drug testing are considered standard conditions of probation. 53. Probationers who commit technical violations are very likely to have their probation revoked. 54. Most of the rules of evidence that govern regular trials do not play a role in revocation hearings. 55. The first step of the revocation process is the arraignment. 56. Offenders who successfully complete pretrial diversion have the charges pending against them dropped. 57. Forfeiture is a process by which the government seizes property gained from or used in criminal activity. 10 58. Boot camp is a variation on traditional shock incarceration. 59. Intensive Supervision Probation (ISP) clients typically have lower violation rates than traditional probationers. 60. Home detention is the strictest form of home monitoring. 11 Chapter 11Prisons and Jails MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a. b. c. d. 2. In what state was the first penitentiary opened? Chicago Illinois New York Pennsylvania This is an early form of correctional facility that emphasized separating inmates from society and from one another so that they would have an environment in which to reflect on their wrongdoing, and ponder their reformation. a. b. c. d. Jail Penitentiary Prison Supermax facility 3. The Pennsylvania System used the ____, which was a nineteenth-century penitentiary in which inmates were kept apart from one another at all times, with daily activities taking place in individual cells. Congregate system Medical model Separate confinement system Supermax system a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. Eventually, the penitentiary at Walnut Street succumbed to the same problems that continue to plague institutions of confinement. What were these problems? Excessive costs and overcrowding Excessive costs and intruding politics Intruding politics and overcrowding Overcrowding and violence 1 5. a. b. c. d. 6. a. b. c. d. 7. a. b. c. d. 8. The New York System used the ____, which was a nineteenth-century penitentiary system in which inmates were kept in separate cells during the night but worked together during the day under a code of enforced silence. Congregate system Medical model Separate confinement system Supermax system If Pennsylvania's prisons were designed to transform wrongdoers into honest citizens, those in New York focused on: Idleness Obedience Silence Privacy At ____, good behavior was rewarded by early release, and misbehavior was punished with extended time under a three-grade system of classification. The Auburn Prison The Eastern Penitentiary Elmira The Western Penitentiary a. b. c. d. ____ was/were greatly responsible for the spread of indeterminate sentences, probation, community sanctions, and parole in the first half of the twentieth century. The Progressives The Quakers Robert Martinson Wardens 9. a. b. c. d. The \"new penology:\" Awarded early release opportunities Involved total segregation for inmates Kept inmates in total silence Assigned inmates to work at hard labor 2 10. a. b. c. d. 11. a. b. c. d. An essay by ____ provided critics of the medical model with statistical evidence that rehabilitation efforts did nothing to lower recidivism rates. Progressives Quakers Robert Martinson Warden organizations The ____ held that institutions should offer a variety of programs and therapies to cure inmates of their "ills," whatever their root causes. Congregate system Medical model Separate confinement system Supermax system 12. The number of Americans in prison or jail has _____________________ since 1985. a. Declined b. Remained stable c. Doubled d. More than tripled 13. Which of the following is not one of the reasons cited for the growth in incarcerated populations? a. Federal prison growth b. Increased probability of incarceration c. Inmates serving more time for each crime d. Private prisons 14. The number of women incarcerated today has: a. Remained stable b. Slowly decreased c. Slowly increased d. Increased at a rate double that of men 3 15. Incarceration rates have increased dramatically, particularly due to: a. Terrorism b. Harsher penalties for sex offenders c. The war on drugs d. The increasing number of juveniles tried and incarcerated as adults 16. a. b. c. d. 17. a. b. c. d. 18. a. b. c. d. 19. a. b. c. d. Which level of prisons is considered a correctional institution designed and organized to control and discipline dangerous felons, as well as prevent escape, with intense supervision, cement walls, and electronic, barbed wire fences? Maximum-security prisons Medium-security prisons Minimum-security prisons Supermax prisons Which prison design is composed of a "wagon-wheel"-like structure that was created with the dual goals of separation and control? Campus style Courtyard style Radial design Telephone-pole design In the ____ prison, the buildings form a square around an open space, and to get from one facility to another, the inmates go across that space. Campus style Courtyard style Radial design Telephone-pole design What type of prison design is characterized by having housing units scattered among functional units such as the dining room, recreation area, and treatment centers? Campus style Courtyard style Radial design Telephone-pole design 4 20. Inmates who compile extensive misconduct records are usually housed, along with violent and repeat offenders, in ____. a. b. c. d. Jail Maximum-security Medium-security Minimum-security 21. The ____ prison is defined as a correctional facility reserved for those inmates who have extensive records of misconduct in maximum-security prisons; it is characterized by extremely strict control and supervision over the inmates, including extensive use of solitary confinement. Maximum-security Medium-security Minimum-security Supermax a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. Which level of prisons is relatively rare and extremely controversial due to its overly harsh methods of punishing and controlling the most dangerous prisoners? Maximum-security Medium-security Minimum-security Supermax 23. What is the main purpose of the Supermax prison? a. To allow inmates to have access to the best trained correctional officers b. To house high-profile inmates in a comfortable setting c. To provide rehabilitation to the inmate d. To strictly control the inmates' movements 24. a. b. c. d. Why does a supermax prison work toward strict control of an inmates' movement within the facility? To allow for individual repentance with a religious leader To care for the inmate at an individual level To limit situations that could lead to breakdowns in discipline To provide individual treatment opportunities 5 25. a. b. c. d. 26. a. b. c. d. 27. a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d. Which level of prisons is defined as a "correctional institution designed to allow inmates, most of whom pose low security risks, a great deal of freedom of movement and contact with the outside world?" Maximum-security prisons Medium-security prisons Minimum-security prisons Supermax prisons Which level of prisons is defined as "a correctional institution that houses less dangerous inmates and therefore uses less restrictive measures to avoid violence and escapes?" Maximum-security prisons Medium-security prisons Minimum-security prisons Supermax prisons The main difference between police agencies and correctional facilities is that correctional facilities lack: A chain of command Bureaucracy Continuity of purpose A military structure The management structures of both police agencies and correctional facilities are similar in that both have: A chain of command Continuity of purpose A decentralized leadership structure A military structure 29. The ____ is ultimately responsible for the operation of the prison. a. Sheriff b. Attorney General c. Warden d. Chief 6 30. Custodial employees in prisons, those who deal directly with inmates, a. Make up more than three-quarters of a prison's staff b. Make up more than half of a prison's staff c. Make up approximately 40% of a prison's staff d. Make up 100% of a prison's staff, because all employees are categorized as custodial 31. Arguments against private prisons include: a. There is too much red tape involved in their management b. The operators cut corners c. Conditions are primitive and unsanitary d. They are too expensive 32. The incentive to privatize is primarily to: a. Best rehabilitate inmates b. Decrease the cost of incarceration c. Increase public safety d. Increase the salaries of correctional officers 33. Private prisons may be cheaper to run than public ones for all of the following reasons EXCEPT: a. Lower labor costs b. They don't have to provide programs and services c. Competitive bidding d. Less red tape 34. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is a correctional facility, usually operated by county government, used to hold persons awaiting trial or those who have been found guilty of misdemeanors? Jail Maximum-security prison Medium-security prison Minimum-security prison 7 35. Approximately ____ million Americans spend at least 1 day in jail each year. a. One b. Three c. Five d. Seven 36. ____ is the period of time a person denied bail has spent in jail prior to his or her trial. a. Bad time b. Good time c. Time deserved d. Time served 37. Jails hold all of the following EXCEPT: a. Those convicted of misdemeanors b. The mentally ill who are awaiting transfer c. Juveniles who have been adjudicated delinquent and sentenced to incarceration d. Inmates awaiting transfer to federal and state prisons 38. a. b. c. d. Which type of facility is responsible for receiving individuals pending arraignment and holding them while awaiting trial? Jail Maximum-security prison Medium-security prison Minimum-security prison 39. Which of the following is not one of the roles performed by jails? a. Hold individuals convicted of felonies b. Receive individuals pending arraignment and holding them while awaiting trial c. Temporarily detaining juveniles pending transfer to juvenile authorities d. Hold the mentally ill pending transfer to health facilities 40. The typical jail term is approximately_____________________. a. ten to thirty days b. thirty to ninety days c. 180 days d. one year 8 41. Almost two-thirds of jails in this country house fewer than: a. 10 inmates b. 25 inmates c. 50 inmates d. 200 inmates 42. The overwhelming number of jails is administered by: a. Municipal police b. County sheriffs c. State government d. Federal government 43. Disenfranchisement refers to: a. Barring convicts from obtaining driver's licenses b. Taking away a convict's ability to participate in mainstream society c. Taking away the convict's right to vote d. Violating the civil rights of inmates 44. High rates of incarceration likely lead to: a. Higher rates of criminal offending b. Greater democratic participation c. Increased delinquent behavior among the children of the incarcerated d. A decline in the unemployment rate 45. High rates of incarceration disproportionately impact: a. Women b. Children c. Minorities d. The elderly TRUE/FALSE 46. The Walnut Street Jail failed because inmates succumbed to illness, insanity, and suicide. 47. The \"new penology\" was put into practice at New York's Elmira Reformatory in 1876. 9 48. Much of the growth in the number of Americans behind bars can be attributed to the enhancement and stricter enforcement of the nation's drug laws. 49. The number of women incarcerated in prisons has begun to slowly decline. 50. Maximum-security prisons tend to be small, holding under 500 inmates. 51. Supermaximum-security prisons, also known as \"supermax\" prisons, are relatively rare and extremely controversial due to their overly harsh methods of punishing and controlling the most dangerous prisoners. 52. The main difference between police and prison organizations is that police departments have a chain of command that is sometimes lacking in prison organizations. 53. The warden is ultimately responsible for the operation of a prison. 54. The incentive to privatize is primarily financial. 55. Private prisons can often be run more cheaply and efficiently than public ones. 56. A prison is a facility, usually operated by county government, used to hold persons awaiting trial or those who have been found guilty of misdemeanors. 57. Jails often generate income, as counties often house state inmates for a fee. 58. Of the nearly 3,370 jails in the United States, more than 2,700 are operated on a county level by an elected sheriff. 59. Minorities are disproportionately impacted by disenfranchisement. 60. Children of convicts are more likely to become involved in delinquent behavior. 10 Chapter 12Behind Bars: The Life of an Inmate MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a. b. c. d. All of the following are true of the total institution EXCEPT: One cannot leave Others arrange every aspect of daily life Regular communication with the community is encouraged A schedule must be followed 2. a. b. c. d. Inmates develop their own language, or Dialect Argot Code Slang 3. a. b. c. d. Which of the following statements regarding today's prison population is accurate? The majority of inmates in today's prisons are under the age of 25 The number of female inmates has remained stable over the past three decades The number of older inmates has more than doubled in recent years The vast majority of inmates are young and healthy 4. Which pattern of inmate behavior includes following rules and generally doing whatever is necessary to speed up their release so they can continue their chosen careers? Disorganized criminal Doing time Gleaning Jailing a. b. c. d. 5. Inmates who are ____ are establishing themselves in the power structure of the prison culture. a. Disorganized criminals b. Doing time c. Gleaning d. Jailing 1 6. Inmates who take advantage of prison resources such as libraries or drug treatment programs by ____ are working to improve themselves to prepare for a return to society. a. Being disorganized criminals b. Doing time c. Gleaning d. Jailing 7. a. b. c. d. An inmate who is ____ exists on the fringes of prison society. A disorganized criminal Doing time Gleaning Jailing 8. a. b. c. d. The socialization process through which a new inmate learns the accepted norms and values of the prison population is called Gleaning Prisonization Institutionalization Immersion 9. a. b. c. d. The single factor that most distinguishes female prisoners from their male counterparts is: Age A history of physical or sexual abuse A lengthy criminal history Race or ethnicity 10. Drug and alcohol use within a women's prison can be a function of the anger and depression many inmates experience due to: Being separated from their children Being separated from their husbands A lack of heterogeneous relationships A lack of person freedoms a. b. c. d. 2 11. How much physical aggression is recorded in women's prisons? a. Relatively low amounts, when compared with men's prisons b. Relatively high amounts, when compared with men's prisons c. None d. The same amount as found in men's prisons 12. a. b. c. d. A group of three or more inmates who engage in activity that poses a threat to the safety of other inmates or the prison staff is called a Organized criminal group Criminal intelligence organization Security threat group Group of interest 13. What is the deprivation model? a. The deprivation model theorizes that the most effective method of dealing with inmate violence is to deprive inmates of privileges such as access to television and recreation. b. The deprivation model theorizes that inmate aggression is the result of the frustration inmates feel at being deprived of freedom, consumer goods, sex, and other staples of life normally available outside the institution. c. The deprivation model theorizes that inmate aggression is the result of the frustration inmates feel at being deprived of quality food, time outdoors, and exercise. d. The deprivation model theorizes that depriving inmates of visits from associates in the free world will significantly reduce the amount of contraband that enters the prison facility. 14. ____ are primarily administrators who deal directly with the warden on custodial issues. a. Captains b. Lieutenants c. Officers d. Sergeants 15. A ____ is the disciplinarian of the prison, responsible for policing and transporting the inmates. a. Captain b. Lieutenant c. Officer d. Sergeant 3 16. a. b. c. d. 17. a. b. c. d. 18. a. b. c. d. 19. a. b. c. d. 20. a. b. c. d. Which rank of custodial staff is responsible for overseeing platoons of officers in specific parts of the prison, such as various cell blocks or work spaces? Captain Lieutenant Officer Sergeant Who is responsible for the "well-being" of the inmates by making sure that inmates do not harm themselves or other prisoners? Block officers Tower guards Work detail supervisors Yard officers ____ oversee small groups of inmates as they perform tasks in the cafeteria, the prison store, the laundry, and other areas. Block officers Tower guards Work detail supervisors Yard officers These officers perform maintenance and security functions in workshop and educational programs. Block officers Industrial shop and school officers Work detail supervisors Yard officers These officers spend their entire shifts in isolated, silent posts high above the grounds of the facility using walkie-talkies to communicate. Block officers Industrial shop and school officers Tower guards Yard officers 4 21. a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. 23. a. b. c. d. 24. a. b. c. d. 25. a. b. c. d. Who are the officers who are responsible for staying alert for breaches in prison discipline or regulations in the relatively unstructured environment of the prison yard? Block officers Industrial shop and school officers Tower guards Yard officers Officers who provide security at prison gates, oversee visitation procedures, act as liaisons for civilians, and handle administrative tasks such as the paperwork when an inmate is transferred from another institution are ______________________________. Administrative building assignments Block officers Tower guards Yard officers In which case did the Supreme Court rule that minor injuries suffered by a convict at the hands of a correctional officer following an argument did violate the inmate's rights, because there was no security concern at the time of the incident? Cooper v. Pate Hudson v. McMillan Whitley v. Albers Wolff v. McDonnell The unwritten judicial policy that favors noninterference by the courts in the administration of prisons and jails is The hands-off doctrine The laissez-faire doctrine The graduated sanctions doctrine The penal authority doctrine Which amendment states that inmates do not have the same guaranteed rights as other Americans? Fourth Fifth Eighth Thirteenth 5 26. a. b. c. d. 27. a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d. What 1974 case also signaled to civil rights lawyers that the Court would no longer follow the "hands-off" doctrine? Estelle v. Gamble Hudson v. McMillan Whitley v. Albers Wolff v. McDonnell When inmates try to prove that their Eighth Amendment rights were violated by a correctional facility, they must meet the standard of ____. Deliberate indifference Hands-on approach Identifiable human needs Relative deprivation The basic human necessities that correctional facilities are required by the Constitution to provide to inmates are referred to as: Deliberate indifference Hands-on approach Identifiable human needs Relative deprivation 29. This is the conditional release of an inmate before his or her sentence has expired. a. Mandatory release b. Pardon c. Parole d. Probation 30. a. b. c. d. This is a release from prison that occurs when an offender has served the length of his or her sentence, with time taken off for good behavior. Mandatory release Pardon Parole Probation 6 31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. An act of executive clemency that overturns a conviction and erases mention of the crime from the person's criminal record is referred to as: A mandatory release A pardon Parole Probation A temporary release from a prison for purposes of vocational or educational training, to ease the shock of release, or for personal reasons is called: A furlough A pardon Parole Probation 33. In a system that uses discretionary parole, the actual release decision is made at a ____. a. conditional hearing b. discretionary hearing c. mandatory hearing d. parole grant hearing 34. Truth-in-sentencing statutes generally require convicted offenders to serve ____ percent of their sentence before being released. a. b. c. d. 100 85 75 50 35. These attempt to measure the risk of an offender recidivating, and are often used to determine whether early release will be granted and under what conditions. Parole contract Parole guidelines Probation contract Probation guidelines a. b. c. d. 7 36. a. b. c. d. 37. a. b. c. d. 38. a. b. c. d. The frequency of contact between the parolee and the parole officer, along with other conditions of parole, are spelled out in the: Probation contract Parole agreement Parole contract Probation guidelines A/The ____ is expected to help the parolee readjust to life outside the correctional institution by helping her or him find a place to live and a job, and seeing that he or she receives any treatment or rehabilitation that may be necessary. Correctional officer Parole board Parole officer Probation officer When a parolee breaks the conditions of parole, ____ occurs as the process of withdrawing parole and returning the person to prison. parole cancellation parole expiration parole revocation prisoner reentry 39. What type of violation occurs when a parolee breaks a condition of parole? a. Condition violation b. Parole violation c. Revocation violation d. Technical violation 40. a. b. c. d. Efforts being made to help inmates make the transition from prison to the "outside" are included under the concept of ____. Parole Pardons Prisoner reentry Prisoner rehabilitation 8 41. a. b. c. d. 42. a. b. c. d. 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d. Statistics indicate that approximately _________ of all ex-prisoners will be returned to jail or prison within three years. 25% 33% 51% 78% The goal of reentry is to promote ______________________, or continued abstinence from offending. Desistance Recidivism Rehabilitation Resistance Prisoners nearing the end of their sentences are given permission to work at paid employment in the community as part of _____________________. Parole Work release programs Probation Furlough Megan's Law requires states to provide communities with relevant information on ____ as a condition of receiving federal anticrime funds. Drug offenders Murderers Property offenders Sexual offenders Under the _____________ model, the authorities directly notify the community of the sex offender's presence. Community Passive Active Registration 9 TRUE/FALSE 46. By definition, a total institution is an institution that provides all of the necessities for existence to those who live within its boundaries. 47. About 40% of state and federal prisoners suffer from at least one form of illness. 48. Jailing is the socialization process through which a new inmate learns the accepted norms and values of the prison population. 49. Violence by inmates is used to establish the prisoner hierarchy by separating the powerful from the weak. 50. Relative deprivation is a theory that inmate aggression is the result of the frustration inmates feel at being deprived of freedom, consumer goods, sex, and other staples of life outside the institution. 51. Compared to men's prisons, women's prisons have relatively high levels of physical aggression. 52. Officers who work the prison yard usually have the least seniority, befitting the assignment's reputation as dangerous and stressful. 53. Prior to the 1970's, the courts applied the \"hands-off\" doctrine to prisoner law. 54. In rare circumstances, the parole board may choose to pardon an inmate. 55. In Greenholtz v. Inmates of the Nebraska Penal and Correctional Complex, the Supreme Court ruled that inmates have a constitutionally protected right to expect parole. 56. Mandatory release, also known as \"maxing out,\" occurs when an inmate has served the maximum amount of time on the initial sentence, minus reductions for good-time credits. 57. Parole is an important part of truth-in-sentencing statutes. 10 58. Truth in sentencing guidelines require offenders to serve at least 85% of their prison terms. 59. date. Parolees are discharged from their parole when they reach their maximum expiration 60. Websites that provide sex offender registry information are considered a form of passive notification. 11 Chapter 13The Juvenile Justice System MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a. b. c. d. What is the doctrine that holds that the state has a responsibility to look after the wellbeing of children and to assume the role of parent if necessary? Child-saving doctrine Illinois Juvenile Court Act In loco parentis Parens patriae 2. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is true of the child-saving movement? Child savers were interested only in the welfare of abused and neglected children Child savers believed in treatment, not punishment Child savers disputed the concept of parens patriae Child savers advocated the incarceration of dangerous juveniles in adult facilities 3. The efforts of the child savers culminated with the passage of the Illinois Juvenile Court Act in _______. 1825 1899 1911 1930 a. b. c. d. 4. a. b. c. d. A juvenile who has been found to have engaged in behavior deemed unacceptable for those under a certain statutorily determined age is referred to as a ____. Juvenile delinquent Status offender Troubled minor Wayward youth 5. a. b. c. d. Which of the following is NOT considered a status offense? Running away from home Truancy Smoking cigarettes Drinking and driving 1 6. a. b. c. d. In the juvenile court, children are not \"found guilty,\" they are instead: Convicted Subject to disposition Adjudicated delinquent Remanded to the court 7. a. b. c. d. The features of the juvenile court include: Juries Adversarial relationship No confidentiality A different terminology 8. a. b. c. d. Which was the first court case to extend due process rights to children? Breed v. Jones In re Gault Kent v. United States McKeiver v. Pennsylvania 9. In which case did the Supreme Court hold that the Fifth Amendment's double jeopardy clause prevents a juvenile from being tried in adult court for a crime that has already been adjudicated in a juvenile court? Breed v. Jones In re Gault Kent v. United States McKeiver v. Pennsylvania a. b. c. d. 10. a. b. c. d. In the decision of this case, the Supreme Court held that juveniles are entitled to many of the same due process rights granted to adult offenders, including notice of charges, the right to counsel, the privilege against self-incrimination, and the right to confront and cross-examine witnesses. Breed v. Jones In re Gault Kent v. United States McKeiver v. Pennsylvania 2 11. a. b. c. d. 12. a. b. c. d. In which case did the Supreme Court require the government to prove "beyond a reasonable doubt" that a juvenile had committed an act of delinquency, raising the burden of proof from a "preponderance of the evidence?" Breed v. Jones In re Gault In re Winship McKeiver v. Pennsylvania In In re Winship, the Supreme Court required the government to prove ____ that a juvenile had committed an act of delinquency. Beyond a reasonable doubt With clear and convincing evidence By a preponderance of the evidence By probable cause 13. Many researchers believe that by the age of ____________, and adolescent has the same ability as an adult to make a competent decision. a. b. c. d. 7 12 14 18 14. In ____, the U.S. Supreme Court forbade the execution of offenders who were under the age of 18 when they committed their crimes. New Jersey v. T.L.O Fare v. Michael C. Roper v. Simmons In re Gault a. b. c. d. 15. a. b. c. d. Though overall rates of juvenile offending have been dropping, the one particular group of juveniles that has become more involved in the juvenile justice system than ever before is that of:: Girls Hispanic males Caucasian males Asian males 3 16. A particular problem area for girls appears to be the crime of: a. Assault b. Burglary c. Murder d. Robbery 17. By definition, ____ is a term used to explain the fact that criminal activity declines with age. a. Age of conformity b. Age of delinquency c. Age of onset d. Aging out 18. The age at which a juvenile first exhibits delinquent behavior is the: a. Age of conformity b. Age of delinquency c. Age of onset d. Aging out 19. Drug and alcohol use by juveniles is: a. Rapidly increasing b. Slowly increasing c. Relatively stable d. Decreasing 20. Drug use has been shown to be a strong risk factor for which category of juveniles? a. African Americans b. Females c. Males d. Whites 21. a. b. c. d. The infliction of physical or emotional damage on a child without any plausible explanation, such as an accident, is referred to as: Child abuse Child endangerment Child maltreatment Child mistreatment 4 22. a. b. c. d. 23. a. b. c. d. What form of child abuse occurs when the child is denied certain necessities such as shelter, food, care, and love? Emotional abuse Child neglect Mental abuse Physical abuse A youth gang is viewed as a group of ____ or more persons who self-identify themselves as an entity separate from the community by special clothing, vocabulary, hand signals, and name, and engage in criminal activity. One Two Three Four 24. The average gang member is _____________ years old. a. 17-18 b. 14-15 c. 12-13 d. 10-11 25. A juvenile's first contact with the juvenile justice system usually comes through a: a. Juvenile court judge b. Juvenile probation officer c. Juvenile residential specialist d. Police officer 26. a. b. c. d. Which philosophy allows a police officer to detain a juvenile for his or her own protection, such as when the officer detects a dangerous situation involving family or peers? Child-saving Culpability protecting In loco parentis Parens patriae 5 27. a. b. c. d. 28. a. b. c. d. 29. a. b. c. d. 30. a. b. c. d. The ____ is a document filed with a juvenile court alleging that the juvenile is a delinquent or a status offender and asking the court to either hear the case or transfer it to an adult court. Complaint Diversion document Intake sheet Petition The process in which the juvenile judge, based on the facts of the case at hand, decides that the alleged offender should be transferred to adult court is a(n): Automatic transfer Judicial waiver Legislative waiver Prosecutorial waiver A(n) ____ is a procedure in which juvenile court judges have the discretion to transfer a juvenile case to adult court when certain predetermined conditions regarding the seriousness of the offense and the age of the offender are met. Automatic transfer Judicial waiver Legislative waiver Prosecutorial waiver Which landmark case resulted in a ruling that youths can be detained if they are deemed a "risk" to the safety of the community or to their own welfare? In re Gault In re Winship Roper v. Simmons Schall v. Martin 31. The first stage of juvenile pretrial procedures is: a. Intake b. Diversion c. Waiver d. Detention 6 32. a. b. c. d. 33. a. b. c. d. 34. a. b. c. d. 35. a. b. c. d. Diversion programs vary widely, but generally fall into three general categories, including all of the following EXCEPT: Restitution Incarceration Treatment and aid Probation A(n) ____ hearing is the process through which a juvenile court determines whether there is sufficient evidence to support the initial petition. Adjudicatory Discretionary Disposition Diversionary Similar to the sentencing hearing for adults, a(n) ____ hearing is when the juvenile judge decides the appropriate punishment for a youth found to be delinquent or a status offender. Adjudicatory Discretionary Disposition Diversionary A(n) ____ is a report prepared during the disposition process that provides the judge with relevant background material to aid in the disposition decision. Adjudication Petition Presentence investigation Predisposition report 36. Differences between the adult justice system and the juvenile justice system include: a. Juvenile proceedings must be public b. Information must be released to the press in the juvenile system c. There is no death penalty for juveniles d. The purpose of the juvenile court is punishment 7 37. Similarities between the adult justice system and the juvenile justice system include: a. The right to a jury trial b. Hearings must be open to the public c. Proof beyond a reasonable doubt is needed d. Dependents are required to testify 38. What is the most common form of juvenile corrections? a. Boot camp b. Juvenile detention c. Probation d. Residential treatment centers 39. In ____, the juvenile lives with a couple who act as surrogate parents. a. Family group homes b. Foster care programs c. Group homes d. Rural programs 40. a. b. c. d. 41. a. b. c. d. Which type of residential treatment program generally houses between 12 and 15 youths and provides treatment, counseling, and educational services by a professional staff? Family group homes Foster care programs Group homes Rural programs In which community-based rehabilitation program is a juvenile returned to the community, but placed under supervision with conditions specified through the juvenile justice system? Boot camp Probation Restitution Treatment program 8 42. a. b. c. d. 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. b. c. d. 45. a. b. c. d. Wilderness camps, farms, and ranches where between 30 and 50 children are placed in an environment that provides recreational activities and treatment programs are referred to as: Family group homes Foster care programs Group homes Rural programs Correctional institutions that are the most restrictive for juveniles found to be delinquent or status offenders are called: Family group homes Group homes Rural programs Training schools This is the practical theory in juvenile corrections that a delinquent or status offender should receive a punishment that matches in seriousness the severity of the wrongdoing. Diversion Graduated sanctions In loco parentis Parens patriae ____ are similar in many aspects to adult prisons and jails, but differ from them in their efforts to treat and rehabilitate young offenders. Family group homes Group homes Training schools Rural programs TRUE/FALSE 46. The child savers believed that juvenile offenders required treatment, not punishment. 47. The efforts of the child savers culminated with the passage of the New York Juvenile Court Act in 1899. 9 48. The juvenile justice system uses the same terminology as found in the adult criminal justice system. 49. The first decision to extend due process rights to children in juvenile courts was In re Gault. 50. The decision in McKeiver v. Pennsylvania represented the one instance in which the Court did not move the juvenile court further toward the adult model. 51. The older a person is, the less likely he or she will be to exhibit criminal behavior. 52. Almost half of all gang members are female. 53. Police officers engage in low visibility decision making when working with juvenile offenders. 54. During intake, an official of the juvenile court must decide, in effect, what to do with the offender. 55. During the adjudicatory hearing, juvenile defendants have the right to present their cases to a jury. 56. Most states provide for a bifurcated process in which a separate disposition hearing follows the adjudicatory hearing. 57. The primary concern during the disposition hearing is to determine a sentence that will serve the needs of the child, rather than one that will protect the community. 58. The most common form of juvenile corrections is probation. 59. Boot camps are a good example of residential treatment programs. 60. No juvenile correctional facility is called a \"prison.\" 10 Chapter 14Homeland Security and Cyber Crime MULTIPLE CHOICE 1. a. b. c. d. 2. According to homeland security expert Brian Jenkins, all of the following are trends in terrorism EXCEPT: Terrorist attacks are becoming more violent Terrorists are becoming more organized The number of nations being controlled by terror groups has risen Terrorist are getting better at mounting global campaigns a. b. c. d. Terrorists have evolved into ____, free of control by or allegiance to any nation, and use violence to further political goals such as the formation or destruction of a particular government. Nonstate actors Enemy combatants Unlawful combatants al Qaeda 3. a. b. c. d. The term Jihad means: The base The struggle Holy war Terrorist 4. a. b. c. d. Osama bin Laden's al Qaeda group has its origins in: Iraq Saudi Arabia Afghanistan Pakistan 5. a. b. c. d. The term al Qaeda means: The base The struggle Holy war Terrorist 372 6. Which of the following is NOT one of the struggles or exertions (Jihad) required of the Muslim faith? a. The struggle against modernization b. The struggle against evil in oneself c. The struggle against non-believers d. The struggle against evil outside of oneself 7. a. b. c. d. 8. a. b. c. d. Which piece of legislation gives federal law enforcement officers the power to arrest and prosecute any individual who provides "material support or resources" to a "terrorist organization?" Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996 (AEDPA) Criminal Justice Model The Liberty Seven USA Patriot Act The ____ is a critical legal tool used in efforts to combat terrorism, because it permits law enforcement agents to arrest suspects even though no crime, in the traditional sense of the word, has taken place and no evident harm has been caused. Antiterrorism and Effective Death Penalty Act of 1996 (AEDPA) Criminal Justice Model The Liberty Seven USA Patriot Act 9. The primary purpose of the AEDPA is to fight terrorism by a. Easing the Fourth Amendment requirements of search and seizure to allow federal law enforcement agents quicker access to terror suspects b. Creating harsher penalties for those convicted of terrorist acts c. Cutting off the financial support funneled to terrorist organizations d. Establishing the Department of Homeland Security 10. The AEDPA was passed in response to: a. September 11, 2001 b. The Oklahoma City Bombing c. Pearl Harbor d. The anthrax mailings 373 11. a. b. c. d. Prior to the formation of the Department of Homeland Security, disaster management at the federal level was primarily the responsibility of: The Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI) The Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA) The Red Cross The National Guard 12. Which of the following agencies is NOT part of the Department of Homeland Security? a. The Federal Bureau of Investigation b. The U.S. Customs and Border Protection c. The U.S. Coast Guard d. The U.S. Secret Service 13. Which agency handles the \"paperwork\" side of U.S. immigration law? a. The U.S. Customs and Border Patrol b. The Immigration and Naturalization Services c. The Transportation Security Administration d. The United States Citizenship and Immigration Services 14. The lead federal agency in the investigation of all terrorism related matters is the: a. U.S. Secret Service b. Federal Bureau of Investigation c. National Security Agency d. Central Intelligence Agency 15. a. b. c. d. The recruitment of foreign agents and interviews with people who have particular knowledge about areas of interest is known as: Human- source collection Open- source collection Counterintelligence Surveillance 374 16. a. b. c. d. 17. a. b. c. d. 18. a. b. c. d. 19. a. b. c. d. Placing undercover agents in a position to gain information from hostile foreign intelligence services is a form of: Electronic surveillance Human-source collection Open-source collection Counterintelligence The intelligence agency that is responsible for protecting U.S. government communications and producing intelligence by monitoring foreign communications is the: Central Intelligence Agency National Security Agency Federal Bureau of Investigation U.S. Secret Service Under this model, terrorism is treated like any other crime, and the law enforcement, court, and correctional systems work together to deter terrorist activity through the threat of arrest and punishment: Criminal Justice Model Military Model Intelligence Model War on Terror Model The ____ regards terrorist activities as threats to the security of the state rather than as criminal acts. Criminal Justice Model Intelligence Model Military Model War on Terror Model 20. Which of the following is NOT a duty of first responders? a. Securing the scene b. Investigating reports of terrorist threats c. Rescuing the injured d. Retrieving those who have been killed 375 21. a. b. c. d. 22. a. b. c. d. A document issued by the U.S. State Department that indicates the conditions under which the holder can remain in the United States is a ______________. Passport Identification card Driver's License Visa Each year, an estimated ____ non-U.S. citizens, unable to secure visas, enter the country illegally by crossing the large, unregulated stretches of our borders with Mexico and Canada. Thousands Tens of thousands Hundreds of thousands Millions 23. The connection between illegal aliens and terrorism in this country is: a. Minimal b. Nonexistent c. Undeniable d. Weak 24. Which Amendment protects against unreasonable searches and seizures? a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Sixth d. Eighth 25. a. b. c. d. The ____ Amendment holds that no person shall be deprived of life, liberty, or property without due process of law. Fourth Fifth Sixth Eighth 376 26. a. b. c. d. Because detainees being held at Guantanamo Bay were seized during a military campaign and were not American citizens, the ____ Amendment was not believed to apply to their incarceration. Fourth Fifth Sixth Eighth 27. In a military tribunal, there is no right to trial by jury, as guaranteed by the ____ Amendment. a. Fourth b. Fifth c. Sixth d. Eighth 28. Which of the following occurs in a military tribunal? a. All members of the panel or jury must agree to convict the individual b. The defendant has a right to a trial by a jury c. A panel of military officers acts in place of the judge and jury and decides questions of "both fact and law" d. The traditional rules of evidence apply 29. For the sake of security, the majority of U.S. citizens favor: a. The search of people at airports b. The inspection of mail and other documents c. The monitoring of phone calls d. The monitoring of email 30. a. b. c. d. A person who takes part in armed hostilities but who does not belong to the armed forces of a sovereign nation and, therefore, is not afforded protection under the Geneva Conventions is a(n): Terrorist State actor Unlawful combatant Enemy of the state 377 31. a. b. c. d. 32. a. b. c. d. 33. a. b. c. d. Major differences between criminal courts and military tribunals include all of the following EXCEPT: Military tribunals do not use juries Defendants are not entitled to representation in military tribunals Military tribunals are not bound by the rules of evidence Military tribunals are not required to convict \"beyond a reasonable doubt\" Any wrongful act that is directed against computers and computer parts or involves the abuse of software is a(n) Cybercrime White collar crime Property crime Computer crime Criminal activity which occurs via a computer in the virtual community of the Internet is a(n) ____________. Cyber crime Computer crime White collar crime Victimless crime 34. ________