Conceptually, why a risk-averse investor (I'm assuming based on A=10) would put a greater than 1 weight

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Conceptually, why a risk-averse investor (I'm assuming based on A=10) would put a greater than 1 weight in the risky portfolio and a negative weight in the risk-free asset? Is it because most of the ETFs we were given are relatively low-risk?

Posted Date: May 19, 2024 07:09 AM

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Conceptually, why a risk-averse investor (I'm assuming based on A=10) would put a greater than 1 weight

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