Question: Does the companys failure to make a wage adjustment consistent with past practice on July 1, 2002 constitute a violation of the employers duty to

Does the companys failure to make a wage adjustment consistent with past practice on July 1, 2002 constitute a violation of the employers duty to bargain in good faith? Explain your reasoning.

If an employer were found guilty of bad-faith bargaining in a case like this, should employees be entitled to a back-pay remedy? If so, how could the NLRB determine the appropriate amount to be awarded?

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