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1. Does the company's failure to make a wage adjustment consistent with past practice on July 1, 2002 constitute a...

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1. Does the company's failure to make a wage adjustment consistent with past practice on July 1, 2002 constitute a violation of the employer's duty to bargain in good faith? Explain your reasoning.
2. If an employer were found guilty of bad-faith bargaining in a case like this, should employees be entitled to a back-pay remedy? If so, how could the NLRB determine the appropriate amount to be awarded?

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The Labor Relations Process

The Labor Relations Process

ISBN: 978-0538481984

10th edition

Authors: William Holley, Kenneth Jennings, Roger Wolters

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Question Posted: May 17, 2016 06:22:25
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