Question: Explain why it is that when you compose a function and its inverse, the result is the same as the input argument into the function.

Explain why it is that when you compose a function and its inverse, the result is the same as the input argument into the function. i.e. why is it that f(f1(y))=y and f1(f(x))=x. Don't forget that you can insert images to help you explain if you wish.

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