Question: If f (x) then ftI) I and f(3) 3 but f(3) (x) is never equal to . Why dcxsn't this violate the Mean Value

If f (x) then ftI) I and f(3) 3 but f(3) (x)

is never equal to . Why dcxsn't this violate the Mean Value

If f (x) then ftI) I and f(3) 3 but f(3) (x) is never equal to . Why dcxsn't this violate the Mean Value Theorem?

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